I had a question earlier today about double jeopardy, and the answer was surprising to me, it also raises a strange implication for the P. Diddy trial.
Basically, double jeopardy means you can't be tried twice for the same incident. So, if you're acquitted of murder, the prosecution can't try again with manslaughter. Even though manslaughter is a different crime from murder, it would presumably concern the same incident.
(Although in a case like that, the judge would probably instruct the jury that if they don't believe you're guilty of murder, they are allowed to consider lesser charges like manslaughter. But you get my point.)
So, Diddy was accused of the serial abuse of multiple women. You'd think that if he was acquitted, they'd easily be able to try him for a different incident of abuse or a different victim.
Except he wasn't charged over any specific incident or victim. He was charged with racketeering. It's a bit convoluted, but basically they were alleging that he couldn't have been a serial abuser on such a large scale without a large group of employees and hangers-on to help organise and cover up his crimes. That constitutes a criminal organization, and he was being charged with being the head of that criminal organization.
This has the advantage of charging him for all of his crimes all at once. It avoids the possibility that multiple allegations would mean he can't get a fair trial on any one allegations, which is why the Harvey Weinstein New York conviction was overturned.
But does it mean that double jeopardy applies to all the crimes? If they charged him with the rape or assault of any particular victim, would that be a bit like the murder/manslaughter problem, where it may be a different crime, but it's the same incident.
Has he basically just been acquitted of every sex crime he's ever committed (allegedly) since becoming a celebrity and having an entourage, even if currently unknown victims come forward?