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I'm learning economics for the first time and they use the terms positive and normative economics to mean, respectively, the description of facts and the policy suggestions. This is the first time I've seen the word "positive" mean factual or descriptive. To me it means greater than zero or good or used to express certainty ("I'm positive that's correct!"). Based on some googling it seems like this positive/normative dichotomy stems from the philosophy world.

I'd like to understand the etymology of this meaning because it's so different than what I'm used to. Does it have something to do with "positing" a solution. (That doesn't really make sense to me either since I would say that when you posit something you're suggesting a possibility.)

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    Positivism in philosophy has the same meaning (dealing with facts).
    – Stuart F
    Commented yesterday
  • If you think positive economics might extend from positive law, see positive in the OED... Formally laid down, imposed, or decreed; proceeding from enactment or custom; conventional. Originally and chiefly in positive law. Commented yesterday
  • @TinfoilHat Branch IV in OED is more productive here: "having relation only to matters of fact".
    – hobbs
    Commented 13 hours ago
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    @hobbs — It’s a smaller leap to positive economics from positive law than from positive philosophy; what could “rejecting metaphysical and theological speculation” mean regarding economics? Commented 13 hours ago
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    This question is similar to: Why is "positive" chosen as the opposite of "normative", as in "positive statement"?. If you believe it’s different, please edit the question, make it clear how it’s different and/or how the answers on that question are not helpful for your problem.
    – Bladewood
    Commented 11 hours ago

1 Answer 1

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According to the Online Etymology Dictionary (reformatted below), the senses that are more common nowadays actually came later:

positive [adjective]:

  • early 14c, originally a legal term meaning "formally laid down, decreed or legislated by authority" (opposed to natural), from Old French positif (13c) and directly from Latin positivus "settled by agreement, positive" (opposed to naturalis "natural"), from positus, past participle of ponere "put, place"

  • The sense of "absolute" is from mid-15c.

  • Meaning in philosophy of "dealing only with facts" is from 1590s.

  • Sense broadened to "expressed without qualification" (1590s),

  • then, of persons, "confident in opinion" (1660s).

  • The meaning "possessing definite characters of its own" is by 1610s.

  • The mathematical use for "greater than zero" is by 1704.

  • [ 1890s]

  • Psychological sense of "concentrating on what is constructive and good" is recorded from 1916.

So the philosophy usage 'dealing with facts rather than opinions' is claimed to precede the 'confident of one's "facts" ' sense and the 'greater than zero' sense which are the default senses today.

.....................

For completeness, in response to Xanne's suggestion, here is the Wikipedia description of the coining of the terms positive economics and normative economics [repunctuated]:

Since its inception as a discipline, economics has been criticized for insufficiently separating prescriptive from descriptive statements ... and also for excessively separating prescriptive from descriptive statements.

The field's current emphasis on positive economics originated with the positivist movement of Auguste Comte [see Wikipedia] and with John Stuart Mill's introduction of Hume's fact-value distinction to define the science and art of economics in 'A System of Logic' which was introduced into the field by John Stuart Mill and was further developed by John Neville Keynes in the 1890s. John Neville Keynes's 'The Scope and Method of Political Economy' defined positive economics as the science of "what is" as compared to normative economics, the study of "what ought to be". Keynes was not the first person to make the distinction between positive and normative economics, but his definitions have become the standard in economics teaching.

Xanne is doubtless correct in believing that the distinction was made to give the study of economics credibility, the respectability associated with a science, with empirical analysis and interpretation of actual economic situations, using tested mathematical models ... rather than the disrepute associated with risky speculation.

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    I wonder how the 16c meaning came to be since the Latin would suggest that positive should be something that's been decreed. But I guess they could mean it as something that's been settled by prior discussion. Commented yesterday
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    Yes; someone has to decide where facts end and unshakeable convictions begin. Keeps the philosophers busy (possibly fighting). Commented yesterday
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    For its use in economics, see en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Positive_and_normative_economics
    – Xanne
    Commented yesterday
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    My guess is the use of “positive economics” terminology is related to logical positivism and to the efforts of economists to be considered scientific.
    – Xanne
    Commented yesterday
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    @GregoryBell See, for instance, "proof positive," which retains its archaic syntax as well as the meaning. Commented 17 hours ago

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